For the trait pod shape, pea plants are either inflated (Q),…

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Fоr the trаit pоd shаpe, peа plants are either inflated (Q), оr constricted (q). Inflated is the dominant form. In the P generation, A homozygous dominant pea plant is crossed with a plant possessing the constricted phenotype. What would the genotype of the F1 generation be?

Fоr the trаit pоd shаpe, peа plants are either inflated (Q), оr constricted (q). Inflated is the dominant form. In the P generation, A homozygous dominant pea plant is crossed with a plant possessing the constricted phenotype. What would the genotype of the F1 generation be?

Fоr the trаit pоd shаpe, peа plants are either inflated (Q), оr constricted (q). Inflated is the dominant form. In the P generation, A homozygous dominant pea plant is crossed with a plant possessing the constricted phenotype. What would the genotype of the F1 generation be?

The mоvаble аttаchment, where the effects оf muscle cоntraction are seen, is called the origin.

Which type оf striаted muscle is cоntrоlled by the аutonomic nervous system?

InstructiоnsReаd eаch questiоn cаrefully.Answer each questiоn by bubbling your answer on the Scantron answer sheet.After you have finished answering all questions, select TRUE.Click Finish Attempt at the bottom of the page.On the next page, click Submit All and Finish.If a confirmation message appears, click Submit All and Finish again to complete your submission.Once your assessment has been submitted successfully, notify your proctor that you are finished. Please wait for the proctor's instructions before proceeding to the next step.PIC Assessment 2 Key/Version A 1. What method is appropriate for administering albuterol during acute bronchospasm? a. Administer the medication with a hand-held nebulizer or metered-dose inhaler with a spacer c. Administer the medication through a feeding tube at routine daily intervals b. Administer the medication by intramuscular injection instead of inhalation d. Administer the medication only by an oral tablet during the acute episode 2. Which intervention best limits contracture formation during burn rehabilitation? a. Apply pressure garments over an unhealed wound c. Maintain the burned joint in a flexed position b. Maintain prescribed positioning, splinting, and range-of-motion exercises d. Limit movement until the skin is fully mature 3. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient who is NPO after surgery? a. Offer solid food before assessing swallowing c. Stop all fluid therapy until bowel sounds return b. Provide unrestricted oral fluids immediately d. Administer prescribed intravenous fluids 4. Which assessment finding is most consistent with a partial-thickness burn? a. A wet, shiny, pink-to-cherry-red wound c. An intact, nonerythematous epidermis b. A dry, leathery, painless wound d. A black, charred wound with intact sensation 5. Which urinary-system concern should be included in the assessment of a patient with obesity? a. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Atrial fibrillation b. Stress urinary incontinence d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease 6. What finding supports the use of intracranial pressure monitoring in a patient with neurologic injury? a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 with a normal CT scan c. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 with an abnormal CT scan b. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 with a normal CT scan d. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 with a normal MRI scan 7. Which measurement most directly evaluates carbon dioxide elimination during respiratory support? a. Peripheral oxygen saturation c. Cardiac electrical activity b. Arterial blood pressure d. End-tidal carbon dioxide 8. Which finding supports classification of an asthma exacerbation as mild to moderate? a. The patient speaks in sentences and has a PEFR greater than 50% of personal best c. The patient is confused and has a silent chest on auscultation b. The patient speaks only in words and has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min d. The patient is drowsy and has a PEFR less than 50% of personal best 9. Which monitoring action is indicated when repeated short-acting bronchodilator doses are administered? a. Monitor urine color because bronchodilators primarily affect renal function c. Monitor only bowel sounds because cardiac effects are not expected b. Withhold all cardiovascular assessment until respiratory symptoms resolve d. Monitor vital signs and the ECG for tachycardia, hypertension, dysrhythmias, or ischemic changes 10. Which reproductive assessment finding is included among possible manifestations of chronic kidney disease? a. Amenorrhea or erectile dysfunction c. Increased fertility with regular ovulation b. Permanent reproductive function without hormonal changes d. Increased testosterone production with enhanced libido 11. Which finding supports a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury during the diagnostic assessment? a. Recent diagnosis of bladder outlet obstruction c. A recent history of dehydration and blood loss b. Recent exposure to contrast media d. Urine sediment containing abundant cellular casts 12. Which physiologic response most directly helps maintain cardiac output during severe anemia? a. Increased heart rate and stroke volume c. Reduced cardiac workload and oxygen demand b. Decreased heart rate and stroke volume d. Decreased pulmonary and systemic circulation 13. Which monitoring plan is expected for a patient receiving intensive care for severe acute respiratory failure? a. Continuous pulse oximetry, arterial blood pressure monitoring, and frequent arterial blood gases c. Daily respiratory assessments without arterial blood gas measurement b. Intermittent temperature checks without continuous oxygenation assessment d. Pulse checks only when the patient reports increased shortness of breath 14. Which patient history supports consideration of an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator? a. Controlled atrial flutter without ventricular instability c. Survival from a previous sudden cardiac death b. A single isolated premature ventricular contraction d. A normal ambulatory ECG with no dysrhythmia history 15. Which exercise should be reinforced for a patient recovering from a Colles’ fracture? a. Repeated lifting of heavy objects with the affected hand c. Active movement of the fingers and thumb on the affected hand b. Forceful wrist rotation against the immobilization device d. Complete immobilization of the shoulder and elbow joints 16. What nursing action best reduces fall risk associated with orthostatic hypotension from fluid volume deficit? a. Place the patient in a darkened room c. Encourage the patient to stand rapidly b. Keep the patient on strict bed rest d. Teach the patient to change positions slowly 17. Which referral is most appropriate for a woman with persistent genital pain and difficulty with sexual activity? a. A provider who focuses only on breast cancer screening c. A provider who evaluates only urinary tract infections b. A health care professional experienced in female sexual medicine d. No referral unless laboratory testing confirms an abnormality 18. Which monitoring action is essential during treatment of hypernatremia? a. Decrease sodium to normal as rapidly as possible c. Monitor serum sodium and serum osmolality b. Avoid monitoring neurologic status during treatment d. Administer sodium-containing fluids for every cause 19. Which postoperative assessment is most important for detecting a major early complication after coronary artery bypass graft surgery? a. Limit monitoring to the surgical incision after extubation c. Assess appetite before evaluating hemodynamic status b. Measure chest tube drainage and inspect incision sites for bleeding d. Remove invasive monitoring devices immediately after surgery 20. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with symptomatic hypocalcemia and tetany? a. Administer a loop diuretic routinely c. Provide only a low-calcium diet b. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate as prescribed d. Delay treatment until the ECG normalizes 21. Which nursing assessment is most important for detecting organ injury from disseminated intravascular coagulation? a. Monitor urine output for a decrease c. Monitor only for visible bruising b. Measure oral intake without assessing mental status d. Assess skin temperature without reviewing laboratory studies 22. What monitoring method continuously records a patient’s ECG while the patient performs usual daily activities? a. Electrophysiologic study c. Synchronized cardioversion b. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator interrogation only d. Holter monitoring 23. Which prescribed therapy helps reduce the incidence of postoperative atrial fibrillation after coronary artery bypass graft surgery? a. Use a sequential compression device as the primary rhythm therapy c. Delay all cardiac medications until hospital discharge b. Administer a long-acting nitrate to every postoperative patient d. Restart a beta-blocker as soon as possible after surgery when not contraindicated 24. Which nursing action best evaluates daily changes in fluid status for a patient with acute kidney injury? a. Record urine appearance without measuring urine volume c. Measure blood pressure only when edema becomes visible b. Estimate fluid balance from the patient’s thirst level d. Obtain daily weights using the same scale and schedule 25. Which assessment trend best evaluates a patient’s response to acute respiratory failure treatment? a. Improved appetite without monitoring oxygen saturation or blood gases c. Improving respiratory status with favorable trends in arterial blood gas results b. Stable body weight without reassessment of respiratory function d. Reduced anxiety without evaluating respiratory effort or gas exchange 26. Which intervention is appropriate for supporting breathing in a patient with an inhalation injury? a. Restrict fluids as the primary respiratory intervention c. Withhold oxygen until arterial blood gases are available b. Place the patient flat in bed d. Place the patient in high Fowler’s position unless contraindicated 27. What action should the nurse take first when a patient with supraventricular tachycardia becomes hypotensive and clinically unstable? a. Prepare for immediate synchronized cardioversion c. Observe the rhythm until spontaneous conversion occurs b. Administer oral anticoagulation before rhythm treatment d. Schedule an outpatient electrophysiologic study 28. Which cervical cancer screening schedule is recommended by the USPSTF for a 25-year-old patient with a cervix? a. No screening until symptoms of cervical cancer occur c. Cytology and HPV cotesting every 5 years b. Cytology testing every 3 years d. Primary HPV testing every year 29. Which dietary instruction is appropriate during the long-term recovery period after bariatric surgery? a. Consume three large meals containing calorie-dense foods c. Eat rapidly until the prescribed portion is finished b. Drink fluids with meals to increase food tolerance d. Consume six small, high-protein feedings daily 30. Which assessment finding most directly indicates inadequate renal perfusion in a patient being evaluated for hemodynamic instability? a. Decreased urine output c. Warm, pink skin b. Hypoactive bowel sounds d. Increased peripheral pulses 31. Which positioning intervention is appropriate for a patient with facial and neck burns? a. Place a rolled towel under the shoulders to support neck hyperextension c. Wrap the entire face tightly with gauze b. Maintain the neck in a flexed position d. Place a pillow directly beneath the burned ears 32. Which urine specific gravity finding indicates concentrated urine in a patient being assessed for fluid balance? a. 1.010 c. 1.020 b. 1.030 d. 1.005 33. Which nursing action promotes an accurate weight assessment for a patient with obesity? a. Measure weight publicly using a standard examination scale c. Estimate weight from waist circumference without measuring body weight b. Use the patient’s reported weight instead of measuring current weight d. Obtain the weight privately with equipment that accommodates the patient 34. Which specimen is appropriate for nucleic acid amplification testing when evaluating suspected gonorrhea in a man? a. A urine specimen or urethral swab c. A stool specimen collected after antibiotic therapy b. A serum specimen obtained before urination d. A sputum specimen collected during a productive cough 35. What postoperative action best supports safe progression to ambulation? a. Return the patient to bed after any mild fatigue c. Assist the patient directly from lying to walking b. Raise the head of the bed before sitting the patient d. Ask the patient to walk without pulse monitoring 36. Which intervention best addresses modifiable risk factors in a patient with stage A heart failure? a. Promote weight management, dietary improvement, and regular exercise c. Restrict all physical activity to prevent cardiac workload b. Avoid recommended vaccinations unless heart failure develops d. Wait for symptoms before treating hypertension and diabetes 37. Which postoperative finding requires immediate attention to reduce aspiration risk? a. Vomiting while the patient remains lethargic c. Return of peristalsis after surgery b. Tolerance of prescribed clear liquids d. Gas discomfort on the second postoperative day 38. What neurologic change requires immediate notification of the health care provider after a brain injury? a. A subtle decrease in level of consciousness c. A need for routine assistance with repositioning b. A request for reduced environmental stimulation d. A stable neurologic assessment at the scheduled interval 39. What intervention has priority for pulseless ventricular tachycardia? a. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation and rapid defibrillation c. Obtain a routine outpatient Holter recording b. Provide elective synchronized cardioversion after sedation d. Administer oral amiodarone before initiating compressions 40. Which finding most strongly suggests destruction of dermal nerve endings in a burn wound? a. Severe pain with a moist, red wound c. Pain that increases during wound cleansing b. Pain surrounding intact blisters d. Absence of pain in a deeply burned area 41. Which nutrition intervention supports sustainable weight loss in an adult with obesity? a. Eliminate an entire food category for rapid weight reduction c. Select the most restrictive diet regardless of food preferences b. Replace nutritious foods with sugary beverages for additional calories d. Emphasize vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and lean protein 42. Which assessment finding indicates an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? a. Stable exercise tolerance with unchanged sputum characteristics c. Improved sleep with decreased respiratory effort and wheezing b. New or worsening dyspnea accompanied by increased sputum volume or purulence d. Decreased dyspnea with normal alertness and stable oxygen needs 43. Which prescribed therapy directly targets the ventricular response in atrial flutter? a. A loop diuretic as the sole rhythm-control medication c. An oral iron replacement product b. A calcium channel blocker or beta-blocker d. An inhaled short-acting bronchodilator 44. Which assessment finding is most consistent with chronic kidney disease–associated anemia? a. Hemolytic anemia caused only by increased red blood cell survival c. Macrocytic anemia caused only by excess red blood cell production b. Normocytic, normochromic anemia with reduced erythropoietin production d. Microcytic anemia caused only by increased erythropoietin production 45. Which weight-bearing instruction corresponds to touch-down or toe-touch ambulation after lower-extremity surgery? a. Prevent all contact between the involved limb and the floor c. Permit approximately one-half of body weight through the involved limb b. Permit the toes to contact the floor for balance without bearing weight d. Permit unlimited weight through the involved limb as tolerated 46. Which nursing intervention has priority for a patient with pancytopenia caused by aplastic anemia? a. Encourage unrestricted activity to improve endurance c. Delay infection assessment until fever develops b. Implement measures that prevent infection and bleeding d. Use intramuscular injections for routine medications 47. Which assessment finding requires immediate attention during the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? a. Stable blood pressure with a gradual weight gain c. Hypotension with a rapid loss of body weight b. Distended neck veins with increasing dependent edema d. Decreased urine output with a bounding pulse 48. Which instruction should the nurse provide to a patient treated for gonorrhea? a. Avoid notifying sexual contacts who do not have symptoms c. Resume sexual contact immediately after receiving ceftriaxone b. Wait for culture results before beginning prescribed treatment d. Return for repeat testing 3 months after treatment 49. What change in defibrillator management is required when a patient undergoing synchronized cardioversion becomes pulseless and develops ventricular fibrillation? a. Increase sedation and wait for a palpable pulse c. Turn off the synchronizer and begin defibrillation b. Maintain synchronization and continue elective cardioversion d. Pause electrical therapy and obtain a routine ECG 50. Which communication technique should the nurse use with a patient who has aphasia after a stroke? a. Interrupt the patient to complete difficult responses c. Speak loudly and repeat several ideas in one question b. Present one simple thought at a time and allow uninterrupted response time d. Use complex explanations to provide complete information quickly 51. Which intervention is appropriate for a woman experiencing vaginal dryness during hormone therapy after breast surgery? a. Recommend discontinuing hormone therapy without consultation c. Avoid discussing sexual concerns until physical healing is complete b. Use a vaginal lubricant to reduce discomfort during intercourse d. Assume mastectomy prevents future sexual satisfaction 52. Which eligibility criterion supports consideration of prescribed drug therapy for obesity? a. A BMI of 25 kg/m2 with no health complication c. A BMI of 26 kg/m2 with a preference for rapid weight loss b. A BMI of 27 kg/m2 with hypertension d. A BMI of 24 kg/m2 without comorbid disease 53. What therapy is identified as the treatment of choice for persistent atrial flutter? a. Continuous chest physiotherapy c. Radiofrequency catheter ablation b. Permanent anticoagulation as the only therapy d. Routine oxygen therapy without rhythm treatment 54. Which nursing action directly supports the primary goals of burn wound care? a. Apply a new dressing without removing the old medication c. Leave necrotic tissue undisturbed beneath the dressing b. Cleanse the wound, remove necrotic tissue, and reapply the prescribed dressing d. Scrub the wound forcefully to remove all tissue 55. Which nursing intervention best supports ventilation during an acute asthma attack accompanied by anxiety and increased work of breathing? a. Place the patient supine and encourage rapid shallow breathing c. Position the patient in high Fowler’s position and coach pursed-lip breathing b. Leave the patient alone to decrease external stimulation during the attack d. Encourage forceful coughing while delaying prescribed bronchodilator therapy 56. What position should be avoided after posterior-approach total hip replacement to prevent prosthesis dislocation? a. Flexing the hip beyond 90 degrees while sitting on a low chair c. Using an elevated toilet seat during early recovery b. Maintaining the head and trunk in an upright position while standing d. Keeping the knees separated with an abduction wedge between the legs 57. Which assessment is essential before administering an antidysrhythmic medication? a. Assess appetite without obtaining cardiac or laboratory data c. Withhold pulse assessment until after the medication is given b. Review the baseline ECG, vital signs, medications, and laboratory results d. Review only the patient’s temperature and bowel sounds 58. What urine output defines oliguria during the initial phase of acute kidney injury? a. Approximately 5 L per day c. Less than 400 mL per day b. More than 400 mL per day d. Approximately 1 to 3 L per day 59. Which nursing action best supports accurate assessment during an STI interview? a. Include the patient’s partner to verify the reported sexual history c. Limit questions to current genital symptoms and physical findings b. Use identical counseling statements for every patient regardless of risk d. Interview the patient privately using a respectful and nonjudgmental approach 60. Which clinical condition meets a commonly used indication for renal replacement therapy in acute kidney injury? a. BUN level of 40 mg/dL with no neurologic changes c. Stable serum potassium with normal cardiac findings b. Serum bicarbonate below 15 mEq/L with metabolic acidosis d. Mild edema without respiratory or cardiac compromise 61. Which preparation is required before nonemergency synchronized cardioversion for a patient who is awake and hemodynamically stable? a. Administer routine oral medications and postpone airway assessment c. Withhold sedation and apply the defibrillator without monitoring b. Administer prescribed intravenous sedation and maintain airway vigilance d. Turn off synchronization before delivering the initial shock 62. What patient instruction best reduces the risk of complications during the initial phase of cast care? a. Elevate the casted extremity above heart level and apply ice as directed c. Insert a narrow object under the cast to relieve itching b. Place the casted extremity below heart level during rest d. Keep the joints above and below the cast completely immobile 63. Which partner-management instruction is appropriate after treatment for a reportable STI? a. Notify only partners with visible genital lesions c. Wait for public health staff to identify every sexual contact b. Tell sexual partners to obtain testing and treatment even without symptoms d. Resume sexual activity after symptoms disappear 64. What peak expiratory flow rate requires the patient with asthma to seek health care as soon as possible? a. A value in the green zone at 80% to 100% of the personal best c. A value in the red zone at 50% or less of the personal best b. A value slightly above the patient’s established personal best d. A value in the yellow zone at 50% to 80% of the personal best 65. Which positioning intervention best promotes venous drainage while helping preserve cerebral perfusion? a. Flex the neck and elevate the head of the bed above 30 degrees c. Elevate the head of the bed while maintaining the head in a midline position b. Place the patient flat with the neck flexed toward the chest d. Keep the head turned to the side with the hips sharply flexed 66. Which assessment pattern is most consistent with septic shock rather than early hemorrhagic shock? a. Pale skin with decreased temperature and improved urine output c. Warm skin with strong pulses and stable vital signs b. Cool, pale skin with initially stable blood pressure d. Warm, pink skin with tachycardia and unstable blood pressure 67. Which electrocardiographic pattern should the nurse associate with acute hyperkalemia in acute kidney injury? a. Peaked T waves with QRS widening c. Shortened PR intervals with delta waves b. Narrow QRS complexes with inverted P waves d. Prolonged QT intervals with prominent U waves 68. Which action is required before initiating prescribed thrombolytic therapy for an acute coronary syndrome? a. Obtain baseline laboratory values and establish two or three intravenous lines c. Perform invasive procedures after the thrombolytic infusion begins b. Begin the thrombolytic infusion before obtaining baseline studies d. Delay intravenous access until reperfusion is confirmed 69. Which finding is most consistent with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion in a patient with a neurologic disorder? a. Increased urine output with normal serum sodium c. Increased urine output with hypernatremia b. Decreased urine output with hypernatremia d. Decreased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia 70. Which measurement provides the standard calculation used to classify overweight and obesity? a. Weight in pounds divided by height in inches c. Height in meters divided by weight in kilograms squared b. Waist circumference divided by hip circumference d. Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared 71. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for a patient with stable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, a pulse, and preserved left ventricular function? a. Intravenous procainamide c. Inhaled corticosteroid therapy b. Intravenous magnesium as the routine first choice for every VT pattern d. Oral warfarin 72. Which reproductive complication can result from epididymitis associated with chlamydia in a man? a. Permanent immunity to other STIs c. Increased sperm production b. Male infertility d. Improved testicular drainage 73. Which intervention most effectively reduces venous thromboembolism risk in a patient with poststroke hemiplegia? a. Maintain the affected extremity in an immobile position c. Limit repositioning to prevent neurologic stimulation b. Place the affected extremity below the level of the heart d. Promote movement through active or passive range-of-motion exercises 74. Which treatment should the interprofessional team consider early for a younger patient with severe aplastic anemia who has received few blood transfusions? a. Long-term supportive transfusions alone c. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation b. Routine oral iron supplementation alone d. Immediate calcium channel blocker therapy 75. What assessment pattern is associated with diabetes insipidus after neurologic injury? a. Decreased urine output with hypernatremia c. Increased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia b. Decreased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia d. Increased urine output with hypernatremia 76. What finding requires immediate notification of the health care provider after orthopedic surgery? a. Small unchanged drainage noted on the postoperative dressing c. Mild incisional discomfort relieved by the prescribed analgesic b. An increase in the size of the bloody drainage area on the dressing d. Stable distal pulses that are equal bilaterally 77. Which finding is most consistent with a lower gastrointestinal complication after bariatric surgery? a. Increased tolerance of large meals without discomfort c. Diarrhea associated with high-carbohydrate intake b. Improved appetite after consuming calorie-dense foods d. Reduced need for protein during the first postoperative months 78. What assessment sequence best evaluates the neurovascular status distal to an extremity fracture? a. Assess color, temperature, capillary refill, pulses, edema, sensation, motor function, and pain c. Assess muscle strength, reflexes, balance, hearing, and visual acuity b. Assess pain, joint range of motion, muscle size, gait, and posture d. Assess skin turgor, bowel sounds, lung sounds, temperature, and urine output 79. Which laboratory evaluation is appropriate when assessing obesity-related liver and metabolic effects? a. Urinalysis alone without metabolic or liver testing c. A stool culture alone without liver function testing b. Serum calcium alone without glucose or lipid testing d. Liver function tests, fasting glucose, and a lipid panel 80. Which safer-sex teaching point should the nurse include regarding nonoxynol 9? a. Avoid using nonoxynol 9 alone as protection against STI transmission c. Use nonoxynol 9 instead of condoms when pregnancy prevention is needed b. Apply nonoxynol 9 before every sexual encounter for complete protection d. Add nonoxynol 9 to condoms to improve infection prevention 81. What blood pressure parameter should the nurse maintain during alteplase treatment for ischemic stroke and for 24 hours afterward? a. Systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg c. Systolic blood pressure less than 185 mm Hg b. Systolic blood pressure less than 150 mm Hg d. Systolic blood pressure less than 220 mm Hg 82. What teaching is appropriate for a patient with a new lower-limb amputation who is learning residual-limb care? a. Allow the residual limb to dangle over the bedside several times daily c. Leave the compression bandage off whenever the patient is resting b. Apply the compression bandage snugly and avoid restricting circulation d. Wrap the residual limb tightly enough to eliminate all distal pulses 83. Which action is appropriate before applying silver sulfadiazine to a burn wound? a. Verify only a history of latex sensitivity c. Administer another sulfa medication first b. Apply the medication despite documented sulfa sensitivity d. Verify that the patient has no sulfa allergy or sensitivity 84. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with mild fluid volume deficit who can swallow safely? a. Begin rapid blood product administration c. Administer sodium-free intravenous fluid immediately b. Restrict oral fluids until laboratory values normalize d. Offer oral rehydration fluids 85. Which renal problem is identified as a possible health risk associated with obesity? a. Lumbar disk disease c. Coronary artery disease b. Chronic kidney disease d. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis 86. Which intervention is the priority when a severe asthma exacerbation worsens during outpatient treatment? a. Begin inhaled corticosteroid therapy and postpone oxygen administration c. Discontinue bronchodilator therapy and allow the patient to rest in the clinic b. Discharge the patient after symptoms briefly decrease without reassessment d. Transfer the patient to an acute care facility while administering SABA, oxygen, and systemic corticosteroid 87. Which ambulation technique is appropriate when a patient uses a cane for an involved lower extremity? a. Hold the cane in the hand on the same side as the involved extremity c. Hold the cane in the hand opposite the involved extremity b. Advance the uninvolved extremity before advancing the cane d. Support body weight by leaning the axilla onto the cane 88. What action should be completed before initiating oral feeding after an acute stroke? a. Begin feeding after confirming that the patient is awake c. Provide a regular meal before completing the neurologic assessment b. Offer thin liquids to test the patient’s swallowing ability d. Keep the patient NPO until swallowing safety is evaluated 89. Which prehospital action limits progression of thermal tissue damage after a burn? a. Apply topical antimicrobial cream before cooling c. Cover the wound immediately with a dry blanket b. Keep the patient covered with multiple wet dressings d. Flush the burned tissue with copious amounts of water 90. What activity should be avoided to protect a joint replacement from excessive implant stress? a. Prescribed quadriceps-setting exercises performed regularly c. High-impact exercise such as jogging or tennis b. Stationary cycling performed according to rehabilitation guidance d. Swimming performed after the incision has adequately healed 91. Which upper gastrointestinal disorder is identified as an obesity-related health risk? a. Chronic kidney disease c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease b. Stress incontinence d. Left ventricular hypertrophy 92. Which complication should the nurse associate with repeated chlamydial infections in a woman? a. Improved tubal function with increased fertility c. Reduced risk for ectopic pregnancy after each infection b. Pelvic inflammatory disease with increased infertility risk d. Permanent protection against future chlamydial reinfection 93. Which intervention is the priority for a patient experiencing heatstroke? a. Delay cardiac monitoring until temperature normalizes c. Rapidly reduce the patient’s core temperature b. Cover the patient with heavy blankets d. Encourage shivering during cooling 94. Which prescribed treatment provides enzymatic debridement of a burn wound? a. A silver-impregnated dressing placed over the wound c. Collagenase applied to nonviable burn tissue b. Silver sulfadiazine applied to the wound d. A transparent dressing placed over the wound 95. Which treatment combination is commonly used for an acute COPD exacerbation? a. A short-acting beta agonist combined with an oral systemic corticosteroid c. A loop diuretic used routinely without assessing fluid status b. An inhaled corticosteroid used alone without bronchodilator therapy d. A long-acting beta agonist used alone for immediate symptom relief 96. Which medication combination is appropriate when a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent is used for refractory intracranial hypertension? a. A neuromuscular blocking agent administered without additional medication c. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined only with an antiseizure medication b. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined only with an IV fluid d. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined with sedation and analgesia 97. What intervention best supports early functional recovery after hip or knee arthroplasty? a. Coordinate prescribed analgesia with early range-of-motion exercise and ambulation c. Restrict joint movement until all postoperative pain has resolved b. Continue prophylactic anticoagulation for only the first postoperative day d. Delay ambulation until the patient has regained full muscle strength 98. Which endocrine assessment finding should the nurse associate with progressive chronic kidney disease? a. Reduced parathyroid hormone associated with high serum calcium c. Increased insulin production associated with improved glucose tolerance b. Reduced thyroid hormone associated with increased erythropoiesis d. Increased parathyroid hormone associated with low serum calcium 99. Which therapy is preferred for rapid replacement of fluid volume when the patient has a severe deficit without blood loss? a. Oral fluid restriction c. Loop diuretic therapy b. 5% dextrose in water d. 0.9% sodium chloride solution 100. Which patient finding should prompt screening for chronic kidney disease risk? a. A remote ankle sprain without medication exposure c. A single episode of seasonal allergic rhinitis b. A normal blood pressure with no kidney history d. A history of diabetes and persistent hypertension