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Serotonin–dopamine antagonists (SDAs) reduce extrapyramidal symptoms because 5HT2A antagonism increases dopamine release in the nigrostriatal pathway.

Continuous 100% occupancy of dopamine D2 receptors is necessary to achieve antipsychotic efficacy.True or False?

Which of the following are dopamine pathways relevant to the actions and side effects of antipsychotics? (select all that apply.)

Glutamate is the brain’s primary:

Atypical (second‑generation) antipsychotics are considered “atypical” primarily because they have relatively higher 5‑HT2A antagonism than D2 antagonism, rather than being pure D2 blockers.

Second messenger systems are important because they:

The term “downstream effects” refers to:

In the classical dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, which pathway is most closely linked to negative symptoms?

Postsynaptic 5‑HT2A blockade in cortical regions by atypical antipsychotics can:

The tuberoinfundibular dopamine pathway primarily regulates which function?