Category: Uncategorized

16. Name this bone marking/structure.   

Allopurinol is a mainstay of uric acid lowering therapy. Which of the following describes Allopurinol’s mechanism of action?

A 72-year-old female with newly diagnosed stage 1 hypertension and no compelling comorbidities is started on hydrochlorothiazide. Which laboratory abnormality is most likely?    

BB is 2 yo male with intermittent asthma.  He is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta 2-agonist (SABA). Which of the prescribed medications is used to reduce inflammation and improve symptoms and lung function? 

A 64-year-old female with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) is taking maximally tolerated atorvastatin 80 mg daily. Her LDL-C remains 92 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next step in management?  

7. Name this cell. 

 Diltiazem and Verapamil are indicated in tachycardias including atrial fibrillation. A primary side effect of verapamil is:

A 71-year-old female with severe COPD (FEV₁ 38% predicted) presents for follow-up. She has chronic bronchitis symptoms and reports two hospitalizations for COPD exacerbations in the past year despite adherence to triple inhaler therapy (fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol). She quit smoking 3 years ago. FEV 1= 42%. Blood eosinophil count is 90 cells/µL. She denies asthma history. Oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. BMI is 21 kg/m². Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?  

A 65-year-old patient with isolated systolic hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects is most commonly associated with this medication?  

A 29-year-old female at 9 weeks gestational pregnancy presents with palpitations, weight loss, tremor, and heat intolerance. Laboratory evaluation reveals suppressed TSH and elevated free T4. Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins are positive. She is diagnosed with Graves disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic management?