A 28-year-old G1 at 30 weeks is admitted for preterm labor w…

A 28-year-old G1 at 30 weeks is admitted for preterm labor with cervical dilation of 3 cm. Membranes are intact. The provider orders two doses of betamethasone 24 hours apart. The client asks why this medication is necessary if “the baby seems fine right now.” Which response by the nurse is most accurate?