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A client is admitted after a 6‑cm thoracic aortic aneurysm (TAA) was discovered on a routine chest X‑ray. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis?

A client with chest trauma rapidly develops signs of obstructive shock—including hypotension, distended neck veins, and severe respiratory distress. The provider diagnoses a tension pneumothorax and prepares for an emergency needle thoracostomy. The client’s family asks, “What does this procedure do?”Which explanation by the nurse is most appropriate?

A 65‑year‑old client develops cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction. The nurse is preparing to implement priority interventions to improve cardiac output, reduce myocardial workload, and stabilize hemodynamics.Question:For each of the following nursing actions or concepts, indicate whether the statement is Indicated, Contraindicated, or Unrelated to the management of cardiogenic shock.

A nurse is assessing a client to determine readiness for ventilator weaning. Which finding indicates the client is ready to begin the weaning process?

A client recovering from an episode of cardiogenic shock is scheduled for a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) to further evaluate cardiac function. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching about the procedure?

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about why aortic aneurysm rupture leads to rapid hemodynamic collapse. Which explanation demonstrates an accurate understanding of the underlying pathophysiology?

Heparin is prescribed for a patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE).What is the primary purpose of administering heparin to this patient?

A client is receiving continuous IV unfractionated heparin for treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which laboratory value indicates that the medication is achieving the expected therapeutic effect?

A client’s condition has progressed from acute lung injury following a near‑drowning incident to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which provider order should the nurse question?

An 89‑year‑old male, Joe Bison, was admitted two days ago after sustaining a left femur fracture from a mechanical fall at home. He underwent surgical repair and has been largely non‑ambulatory, requiring assistance for transfers. The patient has a history of limited mobility, increasing his risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). He has been receiving low‑dose subcutaneous heparin for prophylaxis but has intermittently refused sequential compression devices (SCDs) due to discomfort. Today, the nurse notes the following vital‑sign trends: Joe Bison_Chart.png Questions: Based on these findings, the nurse determines that Mr. Bison is most likely experiencing [BLANK-1] shock. The most likely cause of shock is [BLANK-2]. Options for Blank 1: Options for Blank 2: hypovolemic cardiogenic obstructive distributive myocardial infarction (MI) hemorrhage sepsis pulmonary embolism (PE)