A 62-year-old woman presents with unilateral calf swelling and tenderness. Compression ultrasonography is negative, but clinical suspicion for deep vein thrombosis remains high. Which action is most appropriate?
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A 59-year-old renal transplant recipient develops a rapidly…
A 59-year-old renal transplant recipient develops a rapidly enlarging hyperkeratotic lesion on the dorsal hand. The lesion has recently ulcerated. What is the most appropriate next step?
A 61-year-old patient is struck in the eye by a ball. Visual…
A 61-year-old patient is struck in the eye by a ball. Visual acuity is decreased and examination reveals blood layering in the anterior chamber. Which action is most appropriate?
A 74-year-old man has numerous rough, erythematous lesions a…
A 74-year-old man has numerous rough, erythematous lesions across a chronically sun-damaged scalp. Several individual lesions were previously treated with cryotherapy, but new lesions continue to appear throughout the area. Which management approach is most appropriate?
A 42-year-old woman has intensely pruritic papules involving…
A 42-year-old woman has intensely pruritic papules involving the wrists, finger webs, and waistband. Her spouse recently developed similar symptoms. Which management plan is most appropriate?
A healthcare worker has a positive interferon-gamma release…
A healthcare worker has a positive interferon-gamma release assay. He is asymptomatic and chest imaging shows no evidence of active tuberculosis. What is the most appropriate next step?
A 48-year-old woman presents with mild pleuritic chest pain…
A 48-year-old woman presents with mild pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. HR is 82/min and oxygen saturation is 98%. She has no hemoptysis, unilateral leg swelling, recent surgery or trauma, prior venous thromboembolism, or estrogen use. Clinical assessment indicates a low probability of pulmonary embolism, and a validated clinical decision rule indicates that no further testing is required. What is the most appropriate next step?
A 68-year-old woman has had two episodes of lower-leg cellul…
A 68-year-old woman has had two episodes of lower-leg cellulitis within 6 months. The infection has resolved. Examination reveals chronic leg edema and interdigital scaling with fissures. Which intervention is most important for reducing recurrence?
A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction…
A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction takes carvedilol and reports increasing fatigue after the dose was increased. HR is 48/min and BP 112/68 mm Hg. Which medication is the most likely contributor?
A 71-year-old woman had herpes zoster 3 months ago. The rash…
A 71-year-old woman had herpes zoster 3 months ago. The rash has completely resolved, but she continues to have burning pain and allodynia in the same thoracic distribution. Examination shows healed skin without new vesicles. Which diagnosis best explains her current symptoms?