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A 65-year-old patient with COPD has increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and sputum purulence for 3 days. She is stable for outpatient treatment. Which treatment plan is most appropriate?

A 46-year-old man has no known atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease. His LDL-C is 212 mg/dL on two separate measurements. Which management approach is most appropriate?

A 62-year-old woman presents with unilateral calf swelling and tenderness. Compression ultrasonography is negative, but clinical suspicion for deep vein thrombosis remains high. Which action is most appropriate?

A 59-year-old renal transplant recipient develops a rapidly enlarging hyperkeratotic lesion on the dorsal hand. The lesion has recently ulcerated. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 61-year-old patient is struck in the eye by a ball. Visual acuity is decreased and examination reveals blood layering in the anterior chamber. Which action is most appropriate?

A 74-year-old man has numerous rough, erythematous lesions across a chronically sun-damaged scalp. Several individual lesions were previously treated with cryotherapy, but new lesions continue to appear throughout the area. Which management approach is most appropriate?

A 42-year-old woman has intensely pruritic papules involving the wrists, finger webs, and waistband. Her spouse recently developed similar symptoms. Which management plan is most appropriate?

A healthcare worker has a positive interferon-gamma release assay. He is asymptomatic and chest imaging shows no evidence of active tuberculosis. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 48-year-old woman presents with mild pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. HR is 82/min and oxygen saturation is 98%. She has no hemoptysis, unilateral leg swelling, recent surgery or trauma, prior venous thromboembolism, or estrogen use. Clinical assessment indicates a low probability of pulmonary embolism, and a validated clinical decision rule indicates that no further testing is required. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 68-year-old woman has had two episodes of lower-leg cellulitis within 6 months. The infection has resolved. Examination reveals chronic leg edema and interdigital scaling with fissures. Which intervention is most important for reducing recurrence?