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A PTA is working with a patient referred to physical therapy diagnosed with anterior compartment syndrome. The patient displays with weakness of the ankle dorsiflexors. The nerve MOST likely to be involved is the:

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for performing resistive exercise?

The PTA notes the following position of the patient’s foot: hyperextension of the MTP and flexion of the IP joints. What term will the PTA utilize to describe this deformity?

A PTA is treating a patient following a grade I A-C sprain (subluxation). Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient during the protection phase?

At which one of the following joints does dorsiflexion and plantarflexion primarily occur and what part of the foot is this considered?

Which one of the following special tests is most sensitive to ACL tears in the acute phase?

A PTA is treating a patient diagnosed with patella femoral dysfunction and is requested by the PT to perform flexibility testing. What two tests would be the MOST appropriate for a patient with this condition?

A patient is referred to physical therapy following an inversion sprain to the Right ankle 10 days prior. The PT’s long term goals are recorded as: 1).  Increase AROM R ankle to WNL 2).  Increase strength to Good + all ankle motions. Which one of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate to start with this patient?

A PTA is treating a patient diagnosed with patellofemoral dysfunction. As part of the PT’s POC the clinician is to strengthen the quadriceps with emphasis to the vastus medialis obliques. Where will the PTA palpate to ensure recruitment of the VMO?

A PTA prepares to treat a patient with an acute grade I sprain of the medial collateral ligament. The MOST common mechanism of injury of a MCL Sprain is ____ and a grade I can be described as_________ .