A 32-year-old woman is seen in a walk-in clinic with a 3-day…

A 32-year-old woman is seen in a walk-in clinic with a 3-day history of a frothy vaginal discharge.  After a thorough evaluation for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), she is diagnosed with trichomoniasis and appropriately treated. All other tests are negative. Which one of the following should be recommended regarding the management of trichomoniasis in her male sex partners?

A 25-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of vagina…

A 25-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of vaginal itching, dysuria, and vulvar erythema. She denies fevers, chills, or pelvic pain. She has one long-term male sex partner, and they consistently use condoms. She has no other medical problems and does not take any medications. On physical examination of the external genitalia, there is significant vulvar edema, and excoriations are noted. A pelvic examination reveals thick white vaginal discharge. Which one of the following cluster of clinical manifestations is most consistent with clinical signs and symptoms of vulvovaginal candidiasis?