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A 70-year-old patient was immobilized for 6 weeks after an intertrochanteric fracture. They now demonstrate global hypomobility, especially in abduction and internal rotation. End-feel is capsular and non-irritable. What is the MOST appropriate progression strategy?

The effect of a hamstring strain on gait is:

A patient cannot actively control neutral spine without symptom increase. The best initial strategy is:

A patient presents with pain aggravated by extension and rotation to the same side. Which structure is most likely irritated?

A patient with disc pathology worsens when bending forward while lifting. What biomechanical factor explains this?

The acetabular labrum does all of the following EXCEPT:

Typical early gait status after proximal femur fracture rehab (by post-op day ~2) is:

A patient reports bilateral leg symptoms worsened by walking downhill and relieved by sitting. Which condition best fits?

A patient is two days post-op after an arthroscopy of the knee with the removal of a loose body. You are instructing her in a quadriceps setting exercise while she is lying supine on a mat table. During the exercise the patient begins to experience severe pain. The MOST appropriate action for you to take is:

A PTA explains the benefits of passive range of motion to a patient with a diagnosis of cerebral vascular accident (CVA) with left hemiplegia. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding passive range of motion?