You are the AGACNP working on the general surgery service an…

You are the AGACNP working on the general surgery service and are asked to see a 59-year-old male in the ED. He presented with a 3-day history of left lower quadrant pain associated with diarrhea, low-grade fevers, and bloating. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies a history of previous surgeries, and no bloody or black stools. He denies similar episodes of abdominal pain in the past. He had a colonoscopy 3 years ago that was negative other than scattered diverticula throughout. His vital signs show temperature of 99.8, heart rate of 88, respiratory rate of 16, and blood pressure of 130/76. On exam, he is a pleasant male in no acute distress. He has regular heart rate and rhythm. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is softly distended with tenderness to light and deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. There is no guarding or rebound. Extremities are warm and dry. Imaging: A CT of the abdomen and pelvis demonstrates mild thickening and inflammation in the sigmoid colon without abscess. What is your most likely diagnosis based on this presentation?