A 32-year-old woman is seen in a walk-in clinic with a 3-day…

A 32-year-old woman is seen in a walk-in clinic with a 3-day history of a frothy vaginal discharge.  After a thorough evaluation for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), she is diagnosed with trichomoniasis and appropriately treated. All other tests are negative. Which one of the following should be recommended regarding the management of trichomoniasis in her male sex partners?

A 25-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of vagina…

A 25-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of vaginal itching, dysuria, and vulvar erythema. She denies fevers, chills, or pelvic pain. She has one long-term male sex partner, and they consistently use condoms. She has no other medical problems and does not take any medications. On physical examination of the external genitalia, there is significant vulvar edema, and excoriations are noted. A pelvic examination reveals thick white vaginal discharge. Which one of the following cluster of clinical manifestations is most consistent with clinical signs and symptoms of vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A 31-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of thin…

A 31-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of thin, gray vaginal discharge. After a thorough evaluation, she is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. She is sexually active with men. In addition to treating her for bacterial vaginosis, which one of the following is recommended regarding the treatment of her sex partners?

A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical chlamydia at…

A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical chlamydia at a health department clinic. She has no symptoms, and a test obtained for gonorrhea at the same time is negative. She had her menstrual period about ten days ago and has not had any sexual contact in the past 3 weeks. Which of the following is the recommended regimen for treating cervical chlamydial infection in this woman?