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A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical chlamydia at a health department clinic. She has no symptoms, and a test obtained for gonorrhea at the same time is negative. She had her menstrual period about ten days ago and has not had any sexual contact in the past 3 weeks. Which of the following is the recommended regimen for treating cervical chlamydial infection in this woman?

The drug of choice for an initial genital herpes episode is:  

A 38-year-old female presents with a complaint of tenderness on one side of her labia which increases with ambulation. She also notes a “lump” on her right labia that has increased in size over the past 48 hours and is very painful. On examination a 4cm tender mass is noted lateral to the labia minora/introitus with surrounding erythema.             This is most likely consistent with a:           

The nurse practitioner is talking with a young woman who has been diagnosed with genital herpes simplex type 2. In discussing her care, it would be important for the nurse practitioner to include what information?  

Tax deductions are generally more valuable than tax credits because tax deductions reduce a taxpayer’s gross tax liability dollar for dollar while tax credits reduce taxable income dollar for dollar.

A 24-year-old female was seen in the office twice in the last 6 months for a confirmed VVC. Symptom relief was achieved. She calls the office one month later stating that she thinks she has another “yeast infection”, as her symptoms are the same. Appropriate advice for this patient would include:

Cystic or necrotic lesions have high soft-tissue contrast and are not ideal under fluoroscopy guidance.

Aspiration samples can used to rule out the presence of malignancy.

Fine Needle Biopsy has increased the risk of false positive findings.

Endoscopy is the examination and sampling of the gastrointestinal system.