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A Physical Therapist Assistant is working with a patient that exhibits chronic lymphedema in their right upper extremity and is utilizing intermittent sequential pneumatic pump compression. Which of the following pre and post measures indicate that the patient is exhibiting an appropriate objective response to treatment?

A patient is asked to stand with their feet together and hands at their side. Upon closing their eyes, they lose their balance and begin to fall. This is known as a positive:

A Physical Therapist Assistant is working with a patient that is status-post R. RC repair x 1 week. The therapist is able to passively range the affected shoulder to 180 degrees abduction with an empty end-feel. Which of the following actions would be BEST for the PTA to take based on this finding?

A patient that has suffered a L. CVA with R. Hemiplegia has general muscle strength in their R. LE of 4/5 and in their R. UE of 1/5 while L. extremities are WNL’s. The patient is able to stand with SBA x 1 in static standing and dynamic weight shifting. Based on this information, the MOST appropriate assistive device to initiate gait training would be:

A 30 y.o. patient is unable to elevate their right scapula after a work related injury 2 weeks ago. Which of the following nerves would MOST likely be involved?

When observing a patient ambulating, a therapist notes that the patient’s gait has the following characteristics: narrow base of support, short step length bilaterally, decreased trunk rotation, and decreased arm swing. This gait pattern is often observed in patients with a diagnosis of:

While performing manual muscle testing (MMT), a Physical Therapist Assistant has determined the test needs to be completed with gravity eliminated. What is the BEST possible grade the patient can achieve?

During gait training with a patient, a Physical Therapist Assistant is instructing a pattern of right crutch, left foot, left crutch, right foot. Which of the following crutch pattern is being instructed?

A Physical Therapist Assistant is working with a 75 y.o. patient who is two weeks post Myocardial Infarction. Baseline vital signs are measured as follows: BP 120/72, HR 72 bpm, RR 14. After initiating exercise on the Nu Step for a few minutes, the patients RPE is 6 out of 20, BP 132/70, HR 80 bpm, and RR 20. How should the therapist proceed?

Which of the following would be an indication for use of intermittent pelvic/lumbar traction?