A 40-year-old male patient presents to their physician with…

A 40-year-old male patient presents to their physician with the following history and exam findings:   Subjective reports: 1 week history of progressive numbness and tingling that began in their feet and now extends to mid-thigh bilaterally Noted weakness in hands and bilateral legs 4 days ago as they began dropping items and tripping frequently Currently notes that they feel short of breath with minimal activity  Had a cold 4 weeks prior Objective findings: MMT lower extremities (bilaterally): Ankle Plantarflexion and Dorsiflexion 1/5 Knee Flexion 2/5 Knee Extension and Hip Flexion 3/5 MMT upper extremities (bilaterally): Wrist flexion/extension 2/5 Elbow flexion/extension 3/5 Shoulder Flexion/Abduction 4/5 Reflexes: 1+ in achilles, patella, biceps, brachioradialis, and triceps bilaterally. Which of the following conditions is MOST consistent with this presentation?

During a physical therapy treatment session working on circu…

During a physical therapy treatment session working on circuit training, a patient with multiple sclerosis rapidly demonstrates a deterioration in function including increased spasticity and weakness to the point that they are unable to continue to participate in the session. What is the MOST likely cause of this scenario?