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Someone who believes that the best way to understand the real world is via our sense-experiences is called:

A patient presents with excessive nausea and vomiting (hyperemesis gravidarum) with heavy vaginal bleeding with the expulsion of grape-like clusters. Her vitals are normal, except that her blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg. She has a negative history for hypertension. She says that she did a home pregnancy test a few weeks ago and the results were positive. Her current gestational age is 8 weeks 2 days. You collect a serum B-hCG and the results are extremely high, (well over 100,000). Urine dipstick shows positive protein. From this information alone, your most likely diagnosis is:

A patient presents for a routine prenatal appointment at 32 weeks gestation. Her pregnancy has progressed normally with no complications. Which of the following options is a correct list of evaluations that would be performed at this appointment?

If a deductive argument is ‘sound’, this means:

When someone gives preference to the evidence that reinforces and supports their view, and downplays the evidence that opposes/counts against their view, this is a cognitive bias called:

You are assisting in a delivery. Immediately after the baby is born it is handed to you for care. You are evaluating the one minute APGAR score. The baby’s heart rate is 150 beats/min., it’s cry is weak, it is actively moving, it does not cry but grimaces when irritated with a suction bulb and it’s body is pink but extremities are blue. What would the APGAR score be?

A 27 year-old, G2 P1001, patient with an unremarkable medical history, has a Glucose Loading Test done at a routine prenatal appointment. The result is 155 mg/dl so she is rescheduled for a Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT). The results of the GTT show 2 out of 4 elevated values. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A G1P0 patient presents for a prenatal appointment at 36 weeks gestation. What test should be done at this appointment to determine if prophylactic antibiotics should be given at the time of delivery to prevent possible sepsis, pneumonia or meningitis in the neonate?

Which of the following is an example of the Ad Hominem fallacy?

A G1P0 presents at 11 weeks gestation with moderate vaginal bleeding, but no passage of tissue. An ultrasound was done at an earlier routine visit to determine the gestational age and the estimated date of delivery. At that time, it was confirmed to be an intrauterine pregnancy. You do a speculum exam and see that the cervix is dilated. The diagnosis at this point is: