GF is a 60-year-old male with a long-standing history of alc…

GF is a 60-year-old male with a long-standing history of alcohol dependence who wishes to quit and he is presenting with early withdrawal symptoms. He has experienced alcohol withdrawal seizures in the past. He has severe liver impairment due to his alcohol consumption. He is also diagnosed with depression, which is managed with citalopram and bupropion. Current CIWA-Ar score is 19. Labs are normal with the exception of LFTs, which are significantly elevated. He has been admitted to an inpatient medical unit due to concerns for severe withdrawal. GF has made it through withdrawal and would like to initiate a medication for treatment of his alcohol dependence. Given his disease states and medications, which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment option at this time?

A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with depression, anxie…

A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with depression, anxiety, and antisocial personality disorder (ASPD). He has a history of substance abuse and suicidal behavior, including attempted medication overdoses. Which of the following medications would be the safest and most efficacious option to treat this patient’s mental health disorders?

A 29-year-old female is presenting to you with complaints of…

A 29-year-old female is presenting to you with complaints of symptoms consistent with RLS that started a couple weeks ago. She tells you that she was recently diagnosed with depression and anxiety a month ago and was started on lorazepam and venlafaxine at that time. She donates blood regularly and takes an iron supplement. Recent labs indicate that CBC and iron studies are normal. Which of the following best explains her new symptoms?

A 38-year-old woman presents in January with a depressed moo…

A 38-year-old woman presents in January with a depressed mood. She has also had a lack of interest in activities, hypersomnia, increased appetite, inappropriate guilt, poor concentration, and thoughts of death. She describes symptoms consistent with having one major depressive episode between the months of January and March in each of the past three years, but no significant symptoms at other times of the year. She has no history of a psychotic or anxiety disorder. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her current stressors include relationship problems, and she would like to avoid sexual side effects. She denies using illicit drugs. Of the following, which is the most appropriate management for this patient?