A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of…

A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and suprapubic discomfort. Urinalysis reveals pyuria and bacteriuria. Based on the patient’s symptoms and urinalysis findings, the nurse practitioner suspects a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment approach for this patient?

A 55-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints…

A 55-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of knee pain and stiffness, particularly worse in the mornings and with activity. She reports a history of osteoarthritis (OA) in her family and is interested in using dietary supplements to manage her symptoms. Based on the information provided, which of the following statements regarding the use of glucosamine and chondroitin in osteoarthritis is most accurate?

HP is a 73 yo female who brought to the ED with altered ment…

HP is a 73 yo female who brought to the ED with altered mental status, but is unable to reliably describe any other symptoms. Urinalysis would demonstrate cloudy colored urine, (+) for  RBCs, WBCs, nitrites as well as leukocyte esterases.  Her culture shows >100,000 bacteria in the urine.  TRUE or FALSE:  You would treat this patient for a urinary tract infection (UTI).  

LA is 30-year-old pregnant woman. She is 16 weeks pregnant (…

LA is 30-year-old pregnant woman. She is 16 weeks pregnant (the start of the  second trimester) and reports dysuria at her appointment today. Urinalysis and urine culture are conducted, and she is started on TMP-SMX (Bactrim / Septra) 1 (one) double strength (DS) tablet po bid. Three days later the clinic calls LA to tell her the culture results are back and she needs to change therapy. The culture was positive for E. coli, and it is resistant to TMP-SMX (Bactrim / Septra) only. What would be the new appropriate therapy (drug and duration) for LA?

Kern, 72-year-old male presented at the hospital complaining…

Kern, 72-year-old male presented at the hospital complaining of severe pain in his left leg, shortness of breath, and pleuritic type chest pain following a long drive from Connecticut to Florida with minimal stopping. The patient had a history of pulmonary embolism, degenerative joint disease, and previously was a chronic smoker. His vital signs were: temperature 38.4 °C, pulse 98 bpm, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 138/90 mm Hg. Basic metabolic panel and complete blood count values were within the normal range. Kern is  diagnosed with a new DVT. Kern is given an appropriate loading dose (bolus) of heparin (Half-Life ≈ 1.5 hrs) and started on a heparin infusion at an initial rate of 18 units/kg/hr. Six hours after starting the initial infusion, Kern’s aPTT is 37 seconds. (Institution-specific therapeutic range is 46-70 seconds). What should be done?