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A 39-year-old man who is a professional football player presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of headaches, dizziness, irritability, and fatigue. He reports that his symptoms started when he hit his head during a game. He lost consciousness and had two episodes of vomiting with disorientation and amnesia up to several hours after the incident. He has not had medical care for his symptoms until now. Which of the following is the best next step in management for this patient?

The provider instructs the nursing staff in the clinic to conduct secondary prevention on all patient encounters. Which of the following interventions would best meet this requirement?

When discussing the use of a cholinesterase inhibitor with a 72-year-old woman with early-stage Alzheimer-type dementia and her family, the NP accurately explains:

You are auscultating the heart of a 75-year-old woman and hear a murmur at the 2nd intercostal space on the right sternal border. Which heart valve is most likely affected?

25. An 8-year-old girl presents with abrupt onset of fever (highest 102F), progressively worsening sore throat, and difficulty swallowing; her speech is muffled, and sounds similar to a person speaking with a hot potato in their mouth. On exam, her right tonsil is swollen to twice the size of the left tonsil, and her uvula is displaced. What is her most likely diagnosis?

A 70-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a diabetes management visit. She is currently taking glipizide (Glucotrol) 10 mg daily. What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?

Which is a risk factor associated with breast cancer?         

A topical hydrocortisone cream would be most appropriate for a patient diagnosed with:

A diabetic patient on a sulfonylurea and metformin (Glucophage) with an HbA1c of 6.5% is complaining of episodes of low blood sugar.  Which of the following changes would be the most appropriate?

A 21-year-old man presents to the office with a lesion on the shaft of his penis. He noticed a small lump a week ago; since then, it has grown to a 1 cm lesion that is beginning to break open. He denies any pain at the site or drainage. He has been sexually active with two male partners in the last three months. He had testing for human immunodeficiency virus six months ago; it was negative. Exam reveals a 1 cm in diameter raised lesion with central ulceration. There is no purulent drainage, and there are no other lesions. He has bilateral lymphadenopathy in the groin. Which of the following is the best treatment?