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You have diagnosed your patient with premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). She is seeking an evidence-based approach to manage her symptoms. Assuming she has no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?

Expedited Partner Therapy (EPI) is:

What is the most prominent symptom associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis?

What role does the “Community Advisory Board” (CAB) play in creating trauma-informed research?

How do the hormones used in contraception differ from the hormones used for the treatment of symptoms associated with menopause?

A 31-year-old menstruating patient presents with a palpable breast mass that is concerning for malignancy. Given her age and the nature of the mass, what is the next best step in management?

Melanie presents to the clinic at 7 weeks postpartum. She notes that she is experiencing repetitive, intrusive thoughts that are causing her distress. Her partner encouraged her to come for a clinic visit when Melanie stated that she did not want to be left alone with her baby. These symptoms are consistent with: 

When counseling women about HT and the risk of breast cancer you would include which of the following?

Hormone Therapy is approved by the FDA what which of the following conditions? (check all that apply)

What is the primary purpose of intimate partner violence (IPV) according to the National Domestic Violence Hotline?