A 63-year-old male client is admitted with oliguric renal fa…

A 63-year-old male client is admitted with oliguric renal failure, characterized by significantly reduced urine output. He has been prescribed intravenous furosemide to help manage fluid retention and prevent further complications. The nurse is monitoring his condition closely and prepares to administer the medication. Given the client’s renal status, the nurse understands that careful assessment is necessary before and after the administration of the diuretic. What nursing assessment has the highest priority?

The nurse is reviewing the following laboratory results for…

The nurse is reviewing the following laboratory results for a client. The nurse should recognize that the client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances.   pH 7.49           PaCO2 30         PO2 79          HCO3 23     

The nursing assistant reports to you that the patient with a…

The nursing assistant reports to you that the patient with acute renal failure (ARF) has had a urine output of 350 ml for the past 24 hours (hrs) after receiving furosemide 40 mg intravenous push. The nursing assistant asks you how this can happen. What is the best response?

A client is having peritoneal dialysis. During the exchange,…

A client is having peritoneal dialysis. During the exchange, the nurse observes that the solution draining from the client’s abdomen is consistently blood tinged. The client has a permanent peritoneal catheter in place. What clinical judgment should the nurse make about the blood-tinged drainage?