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A sprinter sustains a proximal hamstring strain near the ischial tuberosity. He is in the sub-acute phase of healing (pain-free walking). To promote tendon remodeling and tissue lengthening, which exercise is MOST appropriate to introduce?

A patient arrives at the clinic with an acute ankle injury. To determine if a radiograph is indicated according to the Ottawa Ankle Rules, the physical therapist must palpate specific bony landmarks. Which of the following findings would warrant a referral for an X-ray?

What is the primary function of the bulbocavernosus (also called bulbospongiosus) muscle in females? 

Scenario: A patient presents with lateral ankle pain. The therapist suspects an injury to the Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL). To perform the anterior drawer, the ankle should be positioned in:

During the bladder’s storage phase, which of the following is true? 

An 82-year-old female fell at home and landed on her hip. She complains of knee pain and is unable to bear weight. Hip AROM is painful, but knee AROM is relatively pain-free. To rule out an occult hip fracture masquerading as knee pain, which screening test would be MOST appropriate?

Your patient is an 80-year-old who sustained a L intertrochanteric femur fracture and had surgery yesterday. Which of the following is the BEST intervention for this patient?

A 22-year-old soccer player reports repeated episodes of the right ankle “giving way” over the past month, especially during cutting and downhill running. She denies significant ankle swelling and reports no history of a recent inversion sprain. On exam, anterior drawer and talar tilt tests are negative. However, neurological testing reveals weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, diminished sensation over the dorsum of the foot, and a decreased L5 reflex response. Straight-leg raise is positive on the right. Which diagnosis BEST explains this presentation?

Your patient has moderate hip OA. Which of the following interventions would be BEST to perform based on the 2017 Hip OA CPG?

A 55-year-old female presents with right-sided groin pain that increases with walking and prolonged standing. Lumbar AROM is normal without pain. Straight-leg raise and slump tests are negative. Hip PROM reveals pain at end-range internal rotation, and FABER testing reproduces concordant symptoms. Repeated hip motions do not significantly alter her pain. Based on this pattern, what is the MOST likely next step?