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During the bladder’s storage phase, which of the following is true? 

An 82-year-old female fell at home and landed on her hip. She complains of knee pain and is unable to bear weight. Hip AROM is painful, but knee AROM is relatively pain-free. To rule out an occult hip fracture masquerading as knee pain, which screening test would be MOST appropriate?

Your patient is an 80-year-old who sustained a L intertrochanteric femur fracture and had surgery yesterday. Which of the following is the BEST intervention for this patient?

A 22-year-old soccer player reports repeated episodes of the right ankle “giving way” over the past month, especially during cutting and downhill running. She denies significant ankle swelling and reports no history of a recent inversion sprain. On exam, anterior drawer and talar tilt tests are negative. However, neurological testing reveals weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, diminished sensation over the dorsum of the foot, and a decreased L5 reflex response. Straight-leg raise is positive on the right. Which diagnosis BEST explains this presentation?

Your patient has moderate hip OA. Which of the following interventions would be BEST to perform based on the 2017 Hip OA CPG?

A 55-year-old female presents with right-sided groin pain that increases with walking and prolonged standing. Lumbar AROM is normal without pain. Straight-leg raise and slump tests are negative. Hip PROM reveals pain at end-range internal rotation, and FABER testing reproduces concordant symptoms. Repeated hip motions do not significantly alter her pain. Based on this pattern, what is the MOST likely next step?

A patient is diagnosed with Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome (GTPS) and demonstrates weakness in their hip abductors and high irritability. What would be the most appropriate early-stage patient education?

You perform the Craig’s test on your patient and get a measurement of 5°. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this finding?

You suspect your patient has athletic pubalgia and you would like to rule out intra-articular pathology. Which test would be best to perform?

A patient is 2 weeks post-operative from an ACL reconstruction. They report persistent fever, chills, and increasing rest pain in the knee. The incision looks red and is warm to the touch. The knee joint effusion has increased significantly since the last visit. What is the MOST appropriate action?