A 60-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes, obesity, and heart…

A 60-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes, obesity, and heart failure (reduced ejection fraction) presents for medication optimization. His A1c remains elevated despite metformin therapy. The APRN is considering adding either a GLP-1 receptor agonist or an SGLT2 inhibitor. Which of the following best supports choosing an SGLT2 inhibitor over a GLP-1 receptor agonist in this patient?

Part 2 of 2 A 64-year-old client is 12 hours postoperative f…

Part 2 of 2 A 64-year-old client is 12 hours postoperative following open abdominal surgery and is receiving IV morphine through a PCA for pain control. The nurse notes hypoactive bowel sounds, and the client reports no bowel movement in 3 days. The abdominal incision is well approximated with staples intact, with a small amount of sanguineous drainage present on the dressing. The lung sounds are diminished at the bases.  The abdomen is soft with expected incisional tenderness. During assessment, the client is arousal to voice but quickly falls back asleep.  Vital Signs BP 100/64 mmHg HR 58 bpm RR 10 bpm SpO₂ 93% on 2L NC Temp 98.9 F Pain 6/10   ABGs pH 7.29 PaCO₂ 54 mmHg PaO₂ 78 mmHg HCO₃⁻ 25 mEq/L SaCO₂ 91 % on 2L Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take first?