A 17 year old female presents to the ED with a 1-week histor…

A 17 year old female presents to the ED with a 1-week history of left leg pain and swelling. She reports she takes oral contraceptives. Evaluation with Doppler ultrasound reveals absence of flow in the left femoral and popliteal veins.  The most important potential complication one should be cautious about with this patient is:

A 4 year old male had an appendectomy. He was receiving IV M…

A 4 year old male had an appendectomy. He was receiving IV Morphine regularly as needed for pain management on postoperative day 1. He was found barely breathing by his nurse on rounds. His cardiac rhythm on the bedside monitor was sinus bradycardia (40 bpm). Which is the MOST important drug for treating this child?