A 26-yeаr-оld G1P0 аt 39+2 weeks gestаtiоn presents tо the labor unit with a complaint of leaking fluid for 4 hours. She reports no contractions. On exam, she is afebrile, has a reactive NST, and amniotic fluid appears clear. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She tested positive for GBS at 36 weeks. According to the ACNM position statement on prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM), which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?